The use of "shall" vs. "will" in English versions vs. Greek grammar

[Ingo Sorke]

I'm trying to establish a pattern (if there is one) for the use of "shall" vs. "will" in English versions (esp. NKJV, ESV, NAU), but haven't found one based on Greek grammar - some futures are rendered "shall", some "will". Not proficient enough yet to create a search that will (shall?!) correlate one translation's shalls with Greek tenses.

 

Example: "And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name JESUS, for He will save His people from their sins." (Mat*1:21*NKJ)

 

Anybody have any insights on this?

 

Thanks, Ingo

[Helen Brown]

If I remember my English grammar at all:

in the first person

shall

is the simple future and

will

is the intensive form implying intention or command

in the second and third person

will

is the simple future and

shall

is the intensive form

Most people don't make those distinctions any more, but one would hope that the translators did.

 

The menomic for this is the cry of the person in the water; "I will drown and no-one shall save me" which communicates that he/she intends to drown and does not want to be saved. The correct plea for help is: "I shall drown and no-one will save me."

 

I hope this saves your study. In the verse you quote the "you shall call" is therefore a future imperative.

[Ingo Sorke]

I shall thank you for your responses and will study them further.

The intriguing intricacies of language ...

 

To take it one step further: I wonder how much particular translation teams were aware of these dynamics, what accounts for the statistical differences in the use of "shall" esp. between NKJV, ESV, and NAU, and why a modern version/revision like ESV or NAU would retain a now archaic term. (I'm not arguing accuracy, dynamic-equivalence, etc. here, just curious about the mind and intentionality of the translators.)

 

Thanks again.

 

Ingo

 

P.S. One day shall we gather at the river . . . and all speak the same language?!