miketisdell Posted January 2 Share Posted January 2 It seems like this is a nearly identical grammatical structure to verses like Ge. 1:17, and 1:22 where the noun following the complement is understood as the subject and because רוח is one of the few common gender nouns, the gender of the verb isn't at issue. ”וַיִּתֵּ֥ן אֹתָ֛ם אֱלֹהִ֖ים“ (Genesis 1:17 Hebrew Masoretic Text with Westminster Hebrew Morphology) ”וַיְבָ֧רֶךְ אֹתָ֛ם אֱלֹהִ֖ים“ (Genesis 1:22 Hebrew Masoretic Text with Westminster Hebrew Morphology) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Dennison Posted January 2 Share Posted January 2 @Robert Holmstedt Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robert Holmstedt Posted January 4 Share Posted January 4 (edited) I will look into this. The tagging is correct; there must have been an update to the underlying morph text. Ok, I read the initial question too quickly. I thought the question was about the Gen verses. I finally had time to read this more carefully and see it is about Exod 35.31. I supposed רוח אלהים *could* be the subject of the verb, but I cannot find a single commentary that takes it as such. Rather, the subject is continued from יהוה in v. 30 and רוח אלהים is secondary object indicating the material used in the "filling." And since יהוה is clearly the subject in that clause, to switch subjects of the very next verb, we would expect a different word order (i.e., fronted subject, non-wayyiqtol verb) instead of the fairly vanilla wayyiqtol - OM+pron - 2nd obj. Edited January 6 by Robert Holmstedt misreading Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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