100 man? not 100 men? - Hebrew

[Kristin]

I apologize for this question as I feel like it is basic and I should understand it, but I don't and would appreciate any clarification / thoughts anyone has.

 

Hebrew obviously has the singular word "man" and they also have the plural word "men." Given that this plural form exists, why is the singular form so often inappropriately used?

 

For example "Gideon came and 100 man" (Judg 7:19). Why doesn't it say "Gideon came and 100 men"?

[Schulschlus]

I found this in Jouon-Muraoka https://accordance.bible/link/read/Jouon-Muraoka_Hebrew#5718

 

136l    As well as the tendency to use the plural despite the presence of the idea of the singular, there is the opposite tendency to use the singular instead of the plural in a case where several individuals share the same feature, especially a limb (hand, head, heart, mouth), or a voice etc.: Jdg 7.19 “the jugs which were in their hand בְּיָדָם”; 7.25 “the head of Oreb and Zeeb”; Jr 32.40 “I will put the fear of me in their heart.” (The plural hearts is rare: 8 x); Ps 17.10 דִּבְּרוּ פִּימוֹ their mouth(s) have said; Ru 1.9 “they lifted up their voice קוֹלָן”; Ru 1.2 “the name of his two sons”; 2Kg 23.14 ‏מְקוֹמָם their sites; 25.28 ‏כִּסֵּא “the thrones of the kings”; Ezr 1.9 מִסְפָּרָם their numbers (the pl. only 1Ch 12.23).

 

It focuses on the singular of the hands, and not the men, so not sure if that would be a similar explanation.

[Schulschlus]

In Russel Fuller's Invitation to Biblical Hebrew Syntax he says: "Singular: In addition to its normal meaning of a single thing or category, the singular may express a collective[...] a) Collective: Some nouns may be singular or collective, context determining-- 'adam' man/mankind, 'nefesh' soul(s), 'isch' man, men...

p. 60

[markusvonkaenel]

2 hours ago, Kristin said:

For example "Gideon came and 100 man" (Judg 7:19). Why doesn't it say "Gideon came and 100 men"?

 Hebrew is one man, 2 men until 10 men and then 11 man and so on. Simple Grammatik.