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Hebrew: Curious parsing with Gentilics?


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Gentilics in the Hebrew parts of BHS and HMT-W4 are tagged as “Proper Name”. Gentilics in the Aramaic parts are tagged as “Gentilic”. Why the different categorization for Aramaic? 


More importantly, the gentilics in both Hebrew and Aramaic usually have a grammatical/morphological number. For example, in 2Kings 16:6 אֶת–הָיְּהוּדִים is grammatically plural in number, but for whatever reason, the Hebrew Gentilics are not assigned a number (perhaps because they've been categorized as “proper name”?). 

What is even more odd is that only some of the Aramaic Gentilics have a number assigned to their tag. See for example לְכַשְׂדָּאֵי (qere) in Daniel 2:5 and compare with the last word in Daniel 2:10 וְכַשְׂדָּי. The first word is tagged as a dual and the second word has no tag for its number.

Besides this, the gender and state (absolute/construct/determined) are not given either, even though they can be determined from the morphology as well. 


So there are two things going on here: 1) I think gentilics should be tagged for number, gender, and state, but there may be a legitimate reason why they are not. It would be nice to know what that reason is. 2) If Aramaic gentilics are not tagged for number, gender and state, why are some Aramaic gentilics tagged as dual? And aren't they in fact plural and not dual? I haven't taken Aramaic in a few years, but from what I remember, a word like כַשְׂדָּאֵי in Daniel 2:5 is a just a plural, not a dual.


Can anyone elucidate this for me? Or if I'm right, then can this tagging/parsing be corrected?

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