How to distinguish 1st Person Imperfect Piel from Hiphil

[TYA]

The first highlighted word in this screenshot is 1st person imperfect Piel, while the next highlighted word is 1st person imperfect Hiphil.  Granted, the vowels are clearly distinguishable in this case, but is there a consistent rule which determines the difference between Piel and Hiphil?

 

I vaguely seem to remember that the khatef patach preformative appears in both Piel and Hiphil, so is there a consistent rule to distinguish, or not?

 

Thank you.

Edited September 25, 2019 by TYA

[mbcvida]

the Piel imperfect will typically have: a sheva under the prefix (preformative) followed by an 'a' class vowel, usually patach, then a dagesh forte in the second root radical

the Hiphil imperfect will typically have an 'a' class vowel, ususally patach, under the preformative followed by an 'e' class vowel, hirik or hirik yod under the first root radical - sometimes it will have a sheva forming a closed syllable

 

If you search Accordance for all Piel imperfects or Hiphil Imperfects you will see the typical patterns, sometimes adjusted for weak letters

Edited September 25, 2019 by mbcvida

[TYA]

Thanks as always, Dick.

 

Just as an illustration of the inconsistency I was remembering, I went and found an example.  See this new screenshot, in which the first and third words have the patach vowel as preformative, but the middle word uses qamatz--all of these being Hiphil imperfect 1st.

Edited September 26, 2019 by TYA

[mbcvida]

screenshot?

[TYA]

Yes, sorry about that.  Here you go.

[mbcvida]

The difference in vowel pointing in your examples are due to the placement of the accent and the resultant syllables - vowels may reduce or lengthen depending on whether the syllable is open or closed and the distance of the syllable from the accented syllables. In Gen 17.21, the near open syllable takes a long vowel (a) vowel, thus a chametz rather than a patach. 

[TYA]

Thank you.