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Psalm 118/119 glitch


Battlesman

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I was trying to get Psalm 118.25-26 in the LXX with the parallel in NIV. However, the result was that in the LXX it was Psalm 118.25-26, but in the NIV it was Psalm 119.25-26!

 

I started a new tab and it worked fine after that. But I wanted to report it just in case. 

 

If I had been smarter I would have saved the session, but alas in the moment I did not do so. 

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Dustin, if understand you correctly, your first parallel was correct. Psalm 118:25-26 in the LXX would be 119:25-26 in the NIV because the NIV is based on the Hebrew text, and the numbering is different between the Hebrew and LXX. I'd be more concerned if your second attempt was different than what you describe. Can you confirm?

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Dustin in the Greek LXX Psalm 9-10 are rejoined to be one psalm so numbering is off from what one using a Hebrew based system would know. One of the latter 140s psalms is split meaning that you end with tre tradional number of 150 psalms. To great extent verses and chapters are very late ntroductions to th Bible text. And while the LXX and MT greatly agrees in divisions this is not always the case. Most Jewish scholars admit psalms 9 and 10 are one psalm. But for whatever reason it was decided that it was best to treat it as two. Was it like Luke-Acts two distinct works designed to go together or like the books of kings just a handy place to divide it. Other examples of a seemingly single Psalm divided is 42-43 and this is always treated as far as I know as two separate psalms numbering wise.

 

-Dan

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Ah, I knew there had to be an easy answer! Thanks for the brief explanation!

 

Dustin in the Greek LXX Psalm 9-10 are rejoined to be one psalm so numbering is off from what one using a Hebrew based system would know. One of the latter 140s psalms is split meaning that you end with tre tradional number of 150 psalms. To great extent verses and chapters are very late ntroductions to th Bible text. And while the LXX and MT greatly agrees in divisions this is not always the case. Most Jewish scholars admit psalms 9 and 10 are one psalm. But for whatever reason it was decided that it was best to treat it as two. Was it like Luke-Acts two distinct works designed to go together or like the books of kings just a handy place to divide it. Other examples of a seemingly single Psalm divided is 42-43 and this is always treated as far as I know as two separate psalms numbering wise.

-Dan


Thanks for replying, R. Now that Daniel Francis cleared up for me the numbering issue, I think I "solved" my problem by making the verse search in the NIV rather than the LXX. 

 

Thanks again!

 

 

Dustin, if understand you correctly, your first parallel was correct. Psalm 118:25-26 in the LXX would be 119:25-26 in the NIV because the NIV is based on the Hebrew text, and the numbering is different between the Hebrew and LXX. I'd be more concerned if your second attempt was different than what you describe. Can you confirm?

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