lex of a word being a form of another words lex

[Kristin]

It appears that [KEY H1980] (הָלַךְ) and [KEY H3212] (יָלַךְ) are different forms of the same lex. HALOT seems to think so, and brings up the def of (הָלַךְ) when looking for the def of (יָלַךְ). If anyone has thoughts, do you perceive these two as two different words, and if so, what would the difference in meaning be? Given HALOT, I am inclined to just call it one word and be done with it but I wanted to see if anyone had thoughts.

 

Thanks,

Kristin

[dvdmoore08]

Benjamin Davidson's The Analytical Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon --obviously an older work but perhaps helpful in this matter-- lists ילך as "to go, only fut[ure]"  then gives a future (i.e. imperfect) form and an infinitive construct, "the rest," he says, "being supplied from הלך." It appears that the forms with yod and infinitive construct without the he are not instances of a separate word but forms in which the he has been absorbed. 

Edited July 5, 2022 by dvdmoore08