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Source of where verse numbers are placed in English Translations


bdollahite

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I assume the placement (location) of a verse is determined by the critical text on which the translation was based.  I also thought most modern translations used the MT and NA28 as their critical texts.  However, I observed in 2Cor 12:3-4 the ESV (2016) and NIV (2011) have the phrase was caught up to paradise in difference verses (see below).  

 

3 And I know that this man—whether in the body or apart from the body I do not know, but God knows— 4 was caught up to paradise and heard inexpressible things, things that no one is permitted to tell. (2 Corinthians 12:3–4 NIV11-GKE)

 

3 And I know that this man was caught up into paradise—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows— 4 and he heard things that cannot be told, which man may not utter. (2 Corinthians 12:3–4 ESV)

 

Where can I find out on what critical text the ESV and NIV, and in fact any translation is based?  Is there a master list somewhere, and could that list be a reference module added to Accordance.  Is there a source(s) that discussed why verses were placed where they are.  I appreciate MT and LXX having different chapter-verse placement because their committees that marked such had little else that was well accepted to use.  But the NIV and ESV in the 21st century — certainly I would hope there would be an agreed to book-chapter-verse reference delineation agreement for Bible books so referenced verse would be the same in modern bibles and bible reference material (papers, commentaries, dictionaries, etc.).  What am I missing?

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ESV: See "Textual Basis and Resources" in the ESV Notes module.

 

NIV11: Look in the Preface, beginning here, in the NIV (2011) Notes module.

 

Also, you will find variations regarding verse division occasionally between different critical texts. Add to that mix that we now have more texts than the ones provided by the German Bible Society (such as the Cambridge Greek NT) which also throw variations in.

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The critical texts used are one influence on verse divisions, but they’re also influenced by traditional divisions in translations (e.g., ESV by RSV, by ASV, …), and by how translators think the text should by punctuated. Thus, even though most translators work the most recent NA/UBS text, they don’t always agree on verse divisions.

 

 But in the case above, the ESV has moved a clause into another verse for the sake of clarity.

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Thanks Jim and Rick

Edited by bdollahite
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