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1John 3:2a Syntax


Andley Chang
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Sorry if the questions were addressed before —— I just started using Accordance two weeks ago :(

1Jo 3:2a ἀγαπητοὶ νῦν τέκνα θεοῦ ἐσμεν,  
How come ἐσμεν is tagged as an A (Adjunct) ?
And τέκνα θεοῦ are not tagged as a single phrase (C-complement, I believe) ?
 

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This is broken I think because the V (vocative) tag is including νῦν. If you slide the syntax chart elements up one word each from the A for τέκνα and they align properly. Further down you will see an unmatched C (complement) which should match αὐτόν I think.

 

I don't know how this happened but the chart and text are misaligned.

 

Thx

D

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Many Thanks !! What a brilliant observation :)

 

Moreover, looking at John 1:1 makes me wonder how can I benefit from the syntax database 🤔

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Hi Andley,

 

  I see you highlighted the complement πρὸς τὸν θεόν and that you are also using the Greek diagrams. Do you have a specific question about this piece of syntax ? It's a prepositional complement of ἦν.

 

  These two do not model constructions in the same way. If you are new to the syntax charts I would recommend working through the Hebrew Syntax Guide,

 

HEBREW SYNTAX GUIDE

A Brief User’s Guide for the Accordance Hebrew Syntax Database (Hebrew Syntax Guide)

by Robert D. Holmstedt
With John A. Cook, Martin G. Abegg, and Roy B. Brown

Copyright © 2017 by OakTree Software, Inc.
October 2017 edition

Accordance edition hypertexted and formatted by OakTree Software, Inc.

Version 1.0
 

  This will clarify many points on how language is modelled in the Greek and the Holmstedt Hebrew syntax dbs. They both follow the same model. However there is no Greek oriented primer that is up to date. There a number of older examples for Greek in the Greek Syntax subforum. But the results have often changed a lot since the time they were written and features have been enhanced in the tool. I wrote a bunch of queries using the syntax db for constructions in Wallace's grammar Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics. It's on the exchange http://www.accordancefiles1.com/exchange/windows.htm It's called Wallace Searches and I see it's no longer really recent either.

 

Thx

D

 

 

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Thanks for the enlightening ! Yes, I'm new to the Syntax database (and to the entire Accordance). I'll surely look into the Holmstedt document and also your GGBB exchange.

 

As for πρὸς τὸν θεόν, I can understand that τὸν θεόν is a complement to the preposition πρὸς — but for the entire PP πρὸς τὸν θεόν, shouldn't it be tagged as an A to modify P (ἦν) just like ἐν ἀρχῇ in John 1:1a ?

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Interesting question. I would argue that ἦν is operating in two different ways in the 1:1a and 1:1b, the first requiring one argument (just the existence of the subject is asserted) and the second requiring two. Ἐν ἀρχῇ is operating as a temporal adverbial phrase. But it raises the interesting question as to whether this should be modeled with Εν ἀρχῇ  being an adjunct to the rest of the verse in total which is more or less how I think of it when I read it. I'd be interested in what Marco, who did the tagging, might think of that. Verse 1:2 interestingly combines this adjunct with the 1:1b. οὗτος ἦν ἐν ἀρχῇ πρὸς τὸν θεόν.

 

One of the Greek teachers on this forum can hopefully make a better go of an explanation.

 

Thx

D

 

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