Abram K-J Posted January 9, 2018 Posted January 9, 2018 By the time Jesus says: Μὴ νομίσητε ὅτι ἦλθον καταλῦσαι τὸν νόμον ἢ τοὺς προφήτας· οὐκ ἦλθον καταλῦσαι ἀλλὰ πληρῶσαι (NA28) “Do not think that I have come to abolish the law or the prophets; I have come not to abolish but to fulfill" (NRSV) in Matthew 5:17, Matthew has used πληρῶσαι six times to show how Jesus has fulfilled what came before. Interestingly, though, Matthew only mentions prophets (five of the six uses before Matt. 5:17) and not the law per se. All the same, the listener/reader is likely thinking of the uses in the book so far when Jesus talks about fulfillment in 5:17 (as he did also in 3:15 at his baptism). 1
Abram K-J Posted January 9, 2018 Author Posted January 9, 2018 Interestingly, Matthew himself has already talked about how Jesus's birth (and circumstances surrounding it) are in fulfillment of the prophets. Now Jesus turns his attention after Matthew 5:17 to the law, so that between Matthew's narration and Jesus's sermon, both prophets and law are shown to be fulfilled in Jesus.
jkgayle Posted January 10, 2018 Posted January 10, 2018 I reached my quota of "like"s again by liking your post here. And so let me just say out loud and write it in letters too that I also "like" your additional comment here that notes Matthew's use of language to show "both prophets and law are shown to be fulfilled in Jesus." 1
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