jkgayle Posted January 2, 2018 Share Posted January 2, 2018 (edited) This Greek word, γένεσις, seems so clearly to refer to the birth of Jesus. And so does γεννηθέντος, in 2:1.it puts it in the context of the "genealogy" that comes before it (from the January 1 reading yesterday). Why the semantic shift? Aren't Mt 1:1 and then Mt 1:18 and 2:1 all focused on the genetics, the genes, the physicality of the origin of Jesus? Aren't these nods to the LXX "Genesis"? It seems that Βίβλος γενέσεως Ἰησοῦ χριστοῦ is a riff off of, or some reference to, αὕτη ἡ βίβλος γενέσεως ἀνθρώπων of Gen 5:1 and αὕτη ἡ βίβλος γενέσεως οὐρανοῦ καὶ γῆς of Gen 2:4. It's sort of weird to think of how human beings came to be "born" and how the sky and the earth happened to have a "birth." And yet aren't readers of Matthew here able to make these connections? (A further one out is what the LXX translators seem to be riffing off of, the ancient Greek obsession with procreation. Here, for example, is how Aristotle's "Generation of Animals" gets into some of this. Did the LXX translators read that? Did Matthew? How are readers of the LXX and of Matthew's gospel supposed to read in light of this biological birth stuff? Τὸ δὲ θῆλυ καὶ τὸ ἄρρεν ὅτι μέν εἰσιν ἀρχαὶ γενέσεως εἴρηται πρότερον, καὶ τίς ἡ δύναμις καὶ ὁ λόγος τῆς οὐσίας αὐτῶν· .... ἐπεὶ δὲ τούτων ἀρχὴ τὸ θῆλυ καὶ τὸ ἄρρεν, ἕνεκα τῆς γενέσεως ἂν εἴη τὸ θῆλυ καὶ τὸ ἄρρεν ἐν τοῖς οὖσιν ἑκάτερον τούτων .... συνέρχεται δὲ καὶ μίγνυται πρὸς τὴν ἐργασίαν τῆς γενέσεως τῷ θήλει τὸ ἄρρεν· αὕτη γὰρ κοινὴ ἀμφοτέροις. Matthew's inclusion of females in chapter 1 seems salient to this notion of births requiring them, no?)I guess what I'm trying to ask is how everyone else reads the semantic ranges of Matthew's γένεσις. Edited January 2, 2018 by jkgayle 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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