Jump to content

Greek Diagram module — Mark 1:5


Ιακοβ
 Share

Recommended Posts

I've been thoroughly enjoying the greek diagram module, its certainly helping me learn how to diagram.  I noticed the following today:
 
post-33292-0-87193100-1482792314_thumb.png
 
When there are two nouns (in apposition?) like this, is the equals sign the only way to represent the text? Or, is this also legitimate:
 
post-33292-0-83125200-1482792631_thumb.jpg
 
Merry Christmas!

 

PS: Is there a way to increase the size of images when you attach them? They come out a little to small on my screen.

post-33292-0-69488500-1482792297_thumb.png

Edited by Ιακοβ
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Your images rendered fine for me.

The syntax diagrams consider ποταμῷ to be an appositive. Not sure I wouldn't have treated Ἰορδανῳ as the appositive but there you go. I'll have to look into that one.

 

I don't know sentence diagramming so cannot much comment on the rest of your post I'm afraid.

 

Thx

D

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Hi Jacob:

 

I use the equals sign for two basic purposes: to depict apposition and, much less frequently, pleonasm. I think the equals sign should always be used for apposition. In your handwritten diagram, the symbol you are using instead of the equals sign would indicate that the word with that symbol is a modifier or qualifier of the word with which it is associated but is not the same person or thing as that which it modifies or qualifies. An appositive, on the other hand, doesn't modify or qualify the word with which it is associated, but is the same person or thing as that word, and "piggy-backs" on that word in order to bring clarification to it. Apposition isn't really a syntactical category at all, since the appositive refers to the same person or thing as the word with which it is in apposition and has the same syntactical relation to the rest of the clause. The appositive simply clarifies the first substantive. If you were to take away one or the other, the sentence or clause would still make perfect syntactical sense, since both words refer to the same person or thing, are in the same case, and have the same syntactical relation to the rest of the clause.

 

I think you mentioned before that you have Wallace's grammar. He has sections on simple apposition for each of the cases, and I think you may find them interesting. For the nominative, pp. 48-49; for the vocative, pp. 70-71; for the genitive, pp. 94-100; for the dative, pp. 152-153; for the accusative, pp. 198-199. For the genitive he has two sections and contrasts the genitive in simple apposition with the genitive of apposition, so the treatment of the genitive is longer and more involved.

 

Keep up the good work! It's great to hear that you are enjoying the diagrams and even better that you are diagramming yourself.

 

Hope this helps,

 

Steve 

Edited by Steve Lo Vullo
  • Like 1
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Thanks so much for your extremely helpful and detailed reply, including a reference to Wallace! I would never have known were to look to read further. I am not afraid of grammatical terms, but I can't imagine sitting down and reading Wallace from front to end—However, when I come across a context (such as this question) that provides a practical reason why to dig into it it spurs me on!

 

Thanks!

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Please sign in to comment

You will be able to leave a comment after signing in



Sign In Now
 Share

×
×
  • Create New...