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This question is super basic, but I just want to double check that I am understanding the CNTTS correctly. So I will clarify my understanding, and I would appreciate confirmation or correction about this. My understanding is that the 0 refers to the base text which means it is identical to the Greek Bible. (I am aware that the NA28 is a different Bible then the UBS3 which Acc doesn't sell, but my understanding is that the two texts are really close. So we can pretend I am reading the UBS3...) So 0 stands for the identical reading as the normal Greek Bible I am reading. So for example, Mt 1:1 says Βίβλος γενέσεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ υἱοῦ Δαυὶδ υἱοῦ Ἀβραάμ. That means the 0 text also says Βίβλος γενέσεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ υἱοῦ Δαυὶδ υἱοῦ Ἀβραάμ. Skipping down to variation 1:1-3.0, it just has the word Χριστου and nothing else. This means that this mss is completely identical to the base text apart from that Χριστου no longer has a circumflex. Under that is another variation with again only one word of χ̅υ̅. So that means that the text is identical to the base text except for Christ in nomen sacrum. So these mss following this variation say Βίβλος γενέσεως Ἰησοῦ χ̅υ̅ υἱοῦ Δαυὶδ υἱοῦ Ἀβραάμ. Is this correct? So following that logic, that is how it works with all variations, that the CNTTS just lists the variation, so if they don't say anything (as in, not typing out the rest of the sentence) that means the verse is the same as the base except this one little thing. If there are more variations, then it will list more and not just one word. Am I understanding this correctly? Thank you for anyone who can clarify this. Sincerely, Kristin